4-d
1 Pet.4:1-2. Jesus Did Not Have Any Sin of His Own to Suffer for
KJV: Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; That he should no longer live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men…
NIV: Therefore, since Christ suffered___ ?___ in his body, arm yourselves also with the same attitude, because he who has suffered in his body is done with sin. As a result he does not live the rest of his earthly life for evil human desires…
Here the KJV teaches us that Christ's suffering was for our sin, so we must be willing to honor His great sacrifice in our lives. That is, we should agree that our sin is worthy only of suffering and death. Thus, as Christ was willing to suffer for our sin, we should be willing to endure physical or emotional pain that God brings our way to kill appetites of the flesh, and crucify us to the sin of the flesh. In this way we are made partakers of Christ's sufferings on our behalf (1 Peter 4:12‑16) so that we might be conformed to His death (Philip.3:10). We begin to cease from sin as it becomes ugly to us through the suffering it brings our way, reminding us of the suffering it brought to the sinless Christ on our behalf.
The NIV follows a critical Greek text that omits the crucial note that Christ suffered for us and equates our suffering with His, saying we, like Him, are to suffer to be done with sin. Now when it’s not said that His suffering was for us (for our sin), the interpretation is that Jesus suffered to be done with His own sin, and we are to follow this example, suffering to be done with ours. Such wording allows no other conclusion, suggesting Jesus was a mere sinful man, and it has us following His example of atoning for our own sin. Heretics would like this error, but no soul who knows that his sin has been forgiven by the divine sinless Christ should have any use whatever for it.
